fashion and philosophy
fashion and philosophy
Do differences in language implicitly denote differences in meaning?
For an example: If I say that the end of Heidegger "release to things "is in essence a call for balance when approaching calculative thinking and meditative thinking distractions. Then someone else says it is a caution against the obsession with calculative thinking. (Not clear whether or not any of these statements are true.) Have we said the same thing? Is there such thing as the semantic differences in philosophy? Or all of the terms inherent in their meanings so that two different ideas, said the same way?
Oh, yes, definitely has implications for language to meaning! Each definition has a specific connotation that help to shape reality. That's why rhetoric is a field of study that relates to the written word ... There can be no such thing as if the semantics of different words and grammar options had no effect on meaning. "Some believe that the only worthy goal of philosophy is to make attempts to clarify (or rather bleed) the language to the extent that they reflect logical syntax exactly - probably end up with most semantic difference. "In my opinion this is impossible. The language is, by definition, subjective.
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